Did Paul Redefine ‘Israel’ in Romans 2:28–29?

i) One problem is the “Jewish question”. Is God faithful to the promises he made to the patriarchs (e.g. Rom 3:4; 11:2)? If the recipient of a promise can be “redefined”, after the fact, then in what respect has God made good on his promises? If God can swap out the original referent and swap in another referent, then the promise is equivocal and vacuous, since there’s no continuity between promise and fulfillment. Transferring the promise from one party to another is a broken promise, is it not? I made you a promise, but I’ve kept my promise by doing that for someone else! Lee might say gentiles were always included in the promise to Abraham, but in that event, where’s the “redefinition”?




Print Friendly, PDF & Email

Become an Eschatos Partner by Giving Monthly